An 82-year-old retired man presents to the clinic with an acute onset of right lower leg pain. On examination of the right lower extremity, the physician notes that the dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses are absent, the popliteal pulse is 1 , femoral pulse is 2 and the foot is cool to the touch in comparison to the left. The patient has 2 femoral, popliteal, dorsalis pedis, and posterior tibial pulses on the left. Which of the following is the best next step in management? Referral for ankle-brachial indexes. Emergent vascular consultation. Home exercise program. Abdominal Doppler ultrasound. Compression stockings.