A physician evaluates a 49-year-old woman who just returned from a trip to Europe. She endorses painless swelling in her right leg that began within a day or two after a 10-hour return flight. Examination of the right leg is notable for 2 edema from the knee down, without appreciable edema in the left leg. She does not have any pain on palpation of the calf, nor does she have any palpable cords. She has 2 palpable popliteal, dorsalis pedis, and posterior tibial pulses bilaterally. Capillary refill is less than 2 seconds in the toes. Both extremities are pink and warm to the touch. Which of the following is most likely? Deep vein thrombosis. Arterial occlusion in the femoral artery on the left. Obstructed lymphatic channels. Swelling due to increased sodium intake. Arterial occlusion of the popliteal artery.