Judy is a 54-year-old divorced female with a lifelong history of schizophrenia. She has been stable on haloperidol 10 milligrams BID for the past 15 years. She lives in subsidized housing and receives public assistance. Her BMI is 22.4 and her last hemoglobin A1C is 6.6%. Her AIMS score is zero. She reports that she takes her medication “most of the time” and she rarely exhibits hallucinations or paranoia anymore. You are seeing her for the first time today, after her previous psychiatrist retired. Given her current presentation, what would be the most appropriate pharmaceutical intervention? A. Continue her current regimen as her symptoms are stable and adverse effects are not evident B. Transition her to haloperidol deconoate because long acting injections offer more stability in chronic schizophrenia C. Add benztropine (Cogentin) to reduce risks of EPSE D. Cross titrate to a second generation antipsychotic medication in order to reduce the risk of metabolic syndrome